Thursday, 9 January 2020

summation - Equality of the sums sumlimitskv=0frackvv! and sumlimitskv=0fracvv(kv)kvv!(kv)!



How can one proof the equality

kv=0kvv!=kv=0vv(kv)kvv!(kv)!
for kN0?



Induction and generating functions don't seem to be useful.



The generation function of the right sum is simply f2(x) with f(x):=k=0(xk)kk!



but for the left sum I still don't know.



It is f(x)=11lng(x) with lng(x)=xg(x) for |x|<1e.



Answer



Recall the combinatorial class of labeled trees which is



T=Z×SET(T)



which immediately produces the functional equation



T(z)=zexpT(z)orz=T(z)exp(T(z)).



By Cayley's theorem we have



T(z)=q1qq1zqq!.



This yields



T(z)=q1qq1zq1(q1)!=1zq1qq1zq(q1)!=1zq1qqzqq!.



The functional equation yields



T(z)=expT(z)+zexpT(z)T(z)=1zT(z)+T(z)T(z)



which in turn yields



T(z)=1zT(z)1T(z)




so that



q1qqzqq!=T(z)1T(z).



Now we are trying to show that



kv=0vv(kv)kvv!(kv)!=kv=0kvv!.




Multiply by k! to get



\sum_{v=0}^k {k\choose v} v^v (k-v)^{k-v} = k! \sum_{v=0}^k \frac{k^v}{v!}.



Start by evaluating the LHS.

Observe that when we multiply two
exponential generating functions of the sequences \{a_n\} and
\{b_n\} we get that




A(z) B(z) = \sum_{n\ge 0} a_n \frac{z^n}{n!} \sum_{n\ge 0} b_n \frac{z^n}{n!} = \sum_{n\ge 0} \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{1}{k!}\frac{1}{(n-k)!} a_k b_{n-k} z^n\\ = \sum_{n\ge 0} \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!} a_k b_{n-k} \frac{z^n}{n!} = \sum_{n\ge 0} \left(\sum_{k=0}^n {n\choose k} a_k b_{n-k}\right)\frac{z^n}{n!}



i.e. the product of the two generating functions is the generating

function of \sum_{k=0}^n {n\choose k} a_k b_{n-k}.



In the present case we have
A(z) = B(z) = 1 + \frac{T(z)}{1-T(z)} = \frac{1}{1-T(z)} by inspection.




We added the constant term to account for the fact that v^v=1 when
v=0 in the convolution. We thus have




\sum_{v=0}^k {k\choose v} v^v (k-v)^{k-v} = k! [z^k] \frac{1}{(1-T(z))^2}.



To compute this introduce



\frac{k!}{2\pi i} \int_{|z|=\epsilon} \frac{1}{z^{k+1}} \frac{1}{(1-T(z))^2} \; dz



Using the functional equation we put z=w\exp(-w) so that dz = (\exp(-w)-w\exp(-w)) \; dw and obtain



\frac{k!}{2\pi i} \int_{|w|=\gamma} \frac{\exp((k+1)w)}{w^{k+1}} \frac{1}{(1-w)^2} (\exp(-w)-w\exp(-w)) \; dw \\ = \frac{k!}{2\pi i} \int_{|w|=\gamma} \frac{\exp(kw)}{w^{k+1}} \frac{1}{1-w} \; dw




Extracting the coefficient we get



k! \sum_{v=0}^k [w^v] \exp(kw) [w^{k-v}] \frac{1}{1-w} = k! \sum_{v=0}^k \frac{k^v}{v!}



as claimed.


Remark. This all looks very familiar but I am unable to locate the
duplicate among my papers at this time.


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