How can one proof the equality
k∑v=0kvv!=k∑v=0vv(k−v)k−vv!(k−v)!
for k∈N0?
Induction and generating functions don't seem to be useful.
The generation function of the right sum is simply f2(x) with f(x):=∞∑k=0(xk)kk!
but for the left sum I still don't know.
It is f(x)=11−lng(x) with lng(x)=xg(x) for |x|<1e.
Answer
Recall the combinatorial class of labeled trees which is
T=Z×SET(T)
which immediately produces the functional equation
T(z)=zexpT(z)orz=T(z)exp(−T(z)).
By Cayley's theorem we have
T(z)=∑q≥1qq−1zqq!.
This yields
T′(z)=∑q≥1qq−1zq−1(q−1)!=1z∑q≥1qq−1zq(q−1)!=1z∑q≥1qqzqq!.
The functional equation yields
T′(z)=expT(z)+zexpT(z)T′(z)=1zT(z)+T(z)T′(z)
which in turn yields
T′(z)=1zT(z)1−T(z)
so that
∑q≥1qqzqq!=T(z)1−T(z).
Now we are trying to show that
k∑v=0vv(k−v)k−vv!(k−v)!=k∑v=0kvv!.
Multiply by k! to get
\sum_{v=0}^k {k\choose v} v^v (k-v)^{k-v} = k! \sum_{v=0}^k \frac{k^v}{v!}.
Start by evaluating the LHS.
Observe that when we multiply two
exponential generating functions of the sequences \{a_n\} and
\{b_n\} we get that
A(z) B(z) = \sum_{n\ge 0} a_n \frac{z^n}{n!} \sum_{n\ge 0} b_n \frac{z^n}{n!} = \sum_{n\ge 0} \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{1}{k!}\frac{1}{(n-k)!} a_k b_{n-k} z^n\\ = \sum_{n\ge 0} \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!} a_k b_{n-k} \frac{z^n}{n!} = \sum_{n\ge 0} \left(\sum_{k=0}^n {n\choose k} a_k b_{n-k}\right)\frac{z^n}{n!}
i.e. the product of the two generating functions is the generating
function of \sum_{k=0}^n {n\choose k} a_k b_{n-k}.
In the present case we have
A(z) = B(z) = 1 + \frac{T(z)}{1-T(z)} = \frac{1}{1-T(z)} by inspection.
We added the constant term to account for the fact that v^v=1 when
v=0 in the convolution. We thus have
\sum_{v=0}^k {k\choose v} v^v (k-v)^{k-v} = k! [z^k] \frac{1}{(1-T(z))^2}.
To compute this introduce
\frac{k!}{2\pi i} \int_{|z|=\epsilon} \frac{1}{z^{k+1}} \frac{1}{(1-T(z))^2} \; dz
Using the functional equation we put z=w\exp(-w) so that dz = (\exp(-w)-w\exp(-w)) \; dw and obtain
\frac{k!}{2\pi i} \int_{|w|=\gamma} \frac{\exp((k+1)w)}{w^{k+1}} \frac{1}{(1-w)^2} (\exp(-w)-w\exp(-w)) \; dw \\ = \frac{k!}{2\pi i} \int_{|w|=\gamma} \frac{\exp(kw)}{w^{k+1}} \frac{1}{1-w} \; dw
Extracting the coefficient we get
k! \sum_{v=0}^k [w^v] \exp(kw) [w^{k-v}] \frac{1}{1-w} = k! \sum_{v=0}^k \frac{k^v}{v!}
as claimed.
Remark. This all looks very familiar but I am unable to locate the
duplicate among my papers at this time.
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