Friday, 3 January 2020

sequences and series - Does $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{phi(n)^s}$ have a euler product?



Does $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{\phi(n)^s}$$



have a euler product and functional equation? $\phi(n)$ is the euler phi function.



Since $\phi(n)$ is multiplicative I think the series could have a euler product and functional equation.




$$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{\phi(n)^s}= \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{a(n)}{n^s}$$



where $a(n)$ is sequence https://oeis.org/A058277 in the OEIS.






I did some research and found many relations between the zeta function and other special functions such as:



$$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\phi(n)}{n^s}=\frac{\zeta(s-1)}{\zeta(s)}. $$


Answer




Firstly, $$\phi(p^k)=p^k\left(1-\frac1p\right)\qquad{\text{$k\ge1$, prime $p$}}$$



Define $f(k)=\phi(k)^{-s}$.



For the moment, consider the set of integers $S_N=\{k\,|\,k=p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}\cdots p_N^{a_N},a_{(\cdot)}\ge1\}$.



Then,
$$\begin{align}
\sum_{k\in S_N}f(k)
&=\sum^\infty_{a_N=1}\cdots\sum^\infty_{a_1=1}

\left[p_1^{a_1}\cdots p_N^{a_N}
\left(1-\frac1{p_1}\right)\cdots\left(1-\frac1{p_1}\right)\right]^{-s} \\
&=\left(\prod^N_{i=1}\frac1{1-1/p_i}\right)^s\cdot\prod^N_{j=1}\sum^\infty_{a_j=1}p_j^{-a_js} \\
&=\prod^N_{i=1}\frac{(1-1/p_i)^{-s}}{p_i^s-1}
\end{align}
$$



Define $$f_i:=\frac{(1-1/p_i)^{-s}}{p_i^s-1}$$



Now we want to find

$\displaystyle{\sum_{k\in S^*_N}f(k)}$ where $S^*_N=\{k\,|\,k=p_1^{a_1}\cdots p_N^{a_N},a_{(\cdot)}\color{red}{\ge0}\}$



Summing $f(k)$ over all the elements in $S_N^*$ with $a_\alpha=0$ and other indexes non-zero gives $\displaystyle{\frac1{f_\alpha}\prod^N_{i=1}f_i}$.



How about having two zero indexes $a_\alpha,a_\beta$? $\displaystyle{\frac1{f_\alpha f_\beta}\prod^N_{i=1}f_i}$.
Three?
$\displaystyle{\frac1{f_\alpha f_\beta f_\gamma}\prod^N_{i=1}f_i}$.



Summing all these and factorizing naturally give
$$\sum_{k\in S^*_N}f(k)=\left(1+\frac1{f_1}\right)\left(1+\frac1{f_2}\right)\cdots\left(1+\frac1{f_N}\right)\cdot\prod^N_{i=1}f_i=\prod^N_{i=1}(1+f_i)$$




Taking the limit $N\to\infty$, we find that
$$\sum^\infty_{n=1}\frac1{\phi(n)^s}=\prod_{\text{prime }p}\left(1+\frac{(1-1/p)^{-s}}{p^s-1}\right)$$



I am still working on the functional equation. It is clear that the function is holomorphic on $\text{Re }s>1$, and is likely to have a pole at $s=1$, as plugging in $s=1$ gives $\prod_p\left(1+\frac1p\right)=\infty$.



A few more words on analytic continuation:



Obviously,
$$\begin{align}

F(s):=\sum^\infty_{n=1}\frac1{\phi(n)^s}
&=\prod_{\text{prime }p}\left(1+\frac{(1-1/p)^{-s}}{p^s-1}\right)\\
&=\prod_{p}\frac1{1-p^{-s}}\cdot\prod_p[1-p^{-s}+(p-1)^{-s}] \\
&=\zeta(s)\cdot \underbrace{\prod_p[1-p^{-s}+(p-1)^{-s}]}_{G(s)}
\end{align}
$$




  1. $G(s)$ converges for $\text{Re }s>0$, as $1-p^{-s}+(p-1)^{-s}=1+sp^{-s-1}+O(p^{-s-2})$.

  2. Therefore, $F(s)$ has a simple pole at $s=1$ due to zeta function. The residue there equals $$\operatorname*{Res}_{s=1}F(s)=\prod_p\left(1+\frac1{p(p-1)}\right)=\frac{315\zeta(3)}{2\pi^4}$$

    (See Landau’s totient constant.)

  3. $$\lim_{s\to0^+}G(s)=1$$ This can be seen by plugging in $s=0$ into the above expression.

  4. Let's look at $G'(0)$.
    $$\frac{G'(s)}{G(s)}=\sum_p\frac{p^{-s}\ln p-(p-1)^{-s}\ln(p-1)}{1-p^{-s}+(p-1)^{-s}}$$
    $$G'(0)=-G(0)\sum_p\ln\left(1-\frac1p\right)=\infty$$
    As $G(0)$ is finite and $G'(0)$ is not, this suggests that $0$ is a branch point of $F(s)$. Thus, meromorphic continuation is not possible.







Further analysis shows that $\text{Re }s=0$ is the natural boundary of $F(s)$.



Firstly, by means of successive series expansion, we obtain
$$\begin{align}
\ln(1-p^{-s}+(p-1)^{-s})
&=\sum^\infty_{n=1}\frac{\left[p^{-s}-(p-1)^{-s}\right]^n}{n} \\
&=\sum^\infty_{n=1}\frac{1}{n}\sum^n_{r=0}\binom nr p^{-s(n-r)}(-1)^r(p-1)^{-sr} \\
&=\sum^\infty_{n=1}\frac{p^{-ns}}{n}\sum^n_{r=0}\binom nr (-1)^r\left(1-\frac1p\right)^{-sr} \\
&=\sum^\infty_{n=1}\frac{p^{-ns}}{n}\sum^n_{r=0}\binom nr (-1)^r\sum^\infty_{k=0}\binom{-sr}{k}\frac{(-1)^k}{p^k} \\
&=\sum^\infty_{n=1}\sum^\infty_{k=0}\alpha_{n,k}(s)\frac1{p^{k+ns}}

\end{align}
$$



where $$\alpha_{n,k}(s)=\frac{(-1)^k}{n}\sum^n_{r=0}(-1)^r\binom nr \binom{-sr}{k}$$



Furthermore, notice that
$$\alpha_{n,0}(s)=\frac1n\sum^n_{r=0}(-1)^r\binom nr=0$$



Therefore,
$$\ln(1-p^{-s}+(p-1)^{-s})=\sum_{(n,k)\in\mathbb N^2}\alpha_{n,k}(s)\frac1{p^{k+ns}}$$

$$\begin{align}
\implies \ln G(s)
&=\sum_p \ln(1-p^{-s}+(p-1)^{-s}) \\
&=\sum_{(n,k)\in\mathbb N^2}\alpha_{n,k}(s)\zeta_{\mathbb P}(k+ns) \\
\end{align}
$$

where $\zeta_{\mathbb P}$ is the prime zeta function.



It is well known that $\zeta_{\mathbb P}$ has the natural boundary $\text{Re }s=0$, because $\mathcal S$ (the set of singularities of $\zeta_{\mathbb P}$) clusters on the imaginary axis. Hence, obviously $G(s)$ cannot be analytically continued across $\text{Re }s=0$. A functional equation does not exist.




Meanwhile, we obtained a representation of $F(s)$ in terms of well-known functions:




$$\sum^\infty_{n=1}\frac1{\phi(n)^s}
=\zeta(s)\exp\left[\sum_{(n,k)\in\mathbb N^2}\alpha_{n,k}(s)\zeta_{\mathbb P}(k+ns)\right]
$$

$$\alpha_{n,k}(s)=\frac{(-1)^k}{n}\sum^n_{r=0}(-1)^r\binom nr \binom{-sr}{k}$$



Thursday, 2 January 2020

calculus - How can something be proved unsolvable?




My question specifically deals with certain real indefinite integrals such as $$\int e^{-x^2} {dx} \ \ \text{and} \ \ \int \sqrt{1+x^3} {dx}$$ Books and articles online have only ever said that these cannot be expressed in terms of elementary functions. I was wondering how this could be proved? I know this is a naive way of thinking, but it seems to me like these are just unsolved problems, not unsolvable ones.


Answer



The trick is to make precise the meaning of "elementary": essentially, these are functions, which are expressible as finite combinations of polynomials, exponentials and logarithms. It is then possible to show (by algebraically tedious disposition of cases, though not necessarily invoking much of differential Galois theory - see e.g. Rosenthal's paper on the Liouville-Ostrowski theorem) that functions admitting elementary derivatives can always be written as the sum of a simple derivative and a linear combination of logarithmic derivatives. One consequence of this is the notable criterion that a (real or complex) function of the form $x\mapsto f(x)e^{g(x)}$, where $f, g$ are rational functions, admits an elementary antiderivative in the above sense if and only if the differential equation $y'+g'y=f$ admits a rational solution. The problem of showing that $e^{x^2}$ and the lot have no elementary indefinite integrals is then reduced to simple algebra. In any case, this isn't an unsolved problem and there is not much mystery to it once you've seen the material.


complex analysis - Convergence of series and summation methods for divergent series

I would like to know what is the sum of this series:




$$\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{1}{1-(-1)^\frac{n}{k}}$$ with $$ n=1, 2, 3, ...$$



In case the previous series is not convergent, I would like to know which are the conditions that would have been required in order for it to be convergent. I can understand that there could be a set of values of $n$ for which the series is not convergent, but this does not directly prove that there are no values of $n$ for which, instead, it is.
In case the previous series is not convergent in the “classical” sense, I would like to know if it can be associated to it a sum, employing those summation methods used to assign a value to a divergent series; like, for example, the Ramanujan summation method which associates to the following well known divergent series



$$\sum_{k=1}^\infty k $$



the value $ -\frac{1}{12} $.



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1_%2B_2_%2B_3_%2B_4_%2B_%E2%8B%AF




https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Divergent_series#Examples



Note that, in general, the argument of the sum considered can assume complex values!

sequences and series - Convergence of the following sum



Does the following sum converge? $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\sin^2(n)}{n}$$
I tried the ratio test and got that $\rho=0$ which means that the series converges absolutely. However, Mathematica and Wolfram Alpha do not give a result when trying to find its convergence. Am I wrong?


Answer



Yes, you are wrong. The ratio test is inconclusive, and the series diverges.



Note that there is some $\varepsilon > 0$ such that $\sin^2(n) + \sin^2(n+1) > \varepsilon$ for all $n$. This is because if $n$ is close to a multiple of $\pi$, $n+1$ will not be. Thus $$\frac{\sin^2(n)}{n} + \frac{\sin^2(n+1)}{n+1} \ge \frac{\varepsilon}{n+1}$$

and a comparison with the harmonic series shows that the series diverges.


set theory - For every infinite $S$, $|S|=|Stimes S|$ implies the Axiom of choice

How to prove the following conclusion:



[For any infinite set $S$,there exists a bijection $f:S\to S \times S$] implies the Axiom of choice.



Can you give a proof without the theory of ordinal numbers.

trigonometry - How to simplify $y = sin(frac{arcsin(x)}{n}), n≥1$?




$y = \sin(\frac{\arcsin(x)}{n}), n≥1$



I know that:



$\lim \limits_{x \to 0} \frac{x}{y} = n$



But I can't figure out what the curve of $x/y$ practically represents. Is there an obvious simple solution?


Answer



Let $\theta = \arcsin x$ and we have to assume that $|x| \lt \dfrac{1}{\sqrt 2}$.




Then $\tan \theta = \dfrac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}$ and $|\tan \theta| \lt 1$.



\begin{align}
\cos \dfrac{\theta}{n} + i \sin \dfrac{\theta}{n}
&= (\cos \theta + i \sin \theta)^{\frac 1n} \\
&= (\cos \theta)^{\frac 1n}(1 + i \tan \theta)^{\frac 1n} \\
&= x^{\frac 1n}\left(1 + i\dfrac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\right)^\frac 1n\\
&= x^{\frac 1n}\sum_{k=0}^\infty
\binom{1/n}{k} i^k\left(\dfrac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\right)^k \\

\cos \dfrac{\theta}{n}
&= x^{\frac 1n}\sum_{k=0}^\infty
(-1)^k\binom{1/n}{2k}\left(\dfrac{x^2}{1-x^2}\right)^k \\
\sin\dfrac{\theta}{n}
&= x^{\frac 1n} \dfrac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}} \sum_{k=0}^\infty
(-1)^k\binom{1/n}{2k+1}\left(\dfrac{x^2}{1-x^2}\right)^k \\
\end{align}



NOTES







We define $\binom zn$ where $z \in \mathbb R$ and $0 \le n \in \mathbb Z$ as follows



$(z)_n =
\begin{cases}
1 & \text{If $n = 0$.}\\
z(z-1)(z-2)\cdots(z-n+1) &\text{If $n \ge 1$.}
\end{cases}$




then $\binom zn = \dfrac{(z)_n}{n!}$



It can be shown that, if $|x| < 1$, then $(1 + x)^z = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \binom zk x^k$


Wednesday, 1 January 2020

combinatorics - Number of $4$-digit numbers that can be formed with the digits $0,1,2,3,4,5$ with constraint on repetition


Problem Statement:-



Find the number of numbers of four digits that can be made from the digits $0,1,2,3,4,5$ if digits can be repeated in the same number. How many of these numbers have at least one digit repeated?




For those who wanna skip all the babble below this para on why I thought what I thought just jump to the Modified Problem Statement in the Edit.




Seems pretty easy, right? Until you are me who misread the given constraint on the repetition of the digits as this - "the numbers can be repeated as many times as their magnitude". So, this would imply $0$ being repeated $0$ times, so it will occur only $1$ time. Similarly, $1$ will repeat $1$ time so it will occur only $2$ times, and so $2$ occurs $3$ times, $3$ occurs $4$ times, and so on. If we were to write the multiset for the digits from which we can choose from then, the multiset would be
$$(\{(0,1),(1,2),(2,3),(3,4),(4,5),(5,6)\})$$



And after spending a lot of time I thought why not try to find a solution here, because I was not able to get one.






My Attempt at a solution to my proposed problem:-




The first digit can be anyone of the five non-zero digits. Assuming the non zero digits to be distinct, we get the total no of nonzero digits to be $20$, hence no of ways of selecting the first digit (i.e. the digit at the thousandths place) is $\displaystyle{{20}\choose{1}}$ and the remaining $20$ digits can be arranged in $3$ remaining spaces is ${}^{20}P_3$. Since we had assumed all the digits to be distinct (even those which were repeating), hence we need to set the overcount that we did due to repetition of arrangements hence we divide the ways of arranging by $(4!)^3.3!.2!.1!$ due to $3,4,5$ can have $4$ copies each in the arrangement, the digit $2$ has $3$ copies and the digit $1$ has $2$ copies. Hence, the total no of ways can be given as
$$\dfrac{\displaystyle{{20}\choose{1}}.{}^{20}P_3}{(4!)^3.3!.2!}$$.



On calculating this comes out to be a fraction. So, this is definitely not the correct approach.



Edit:- For all those who are solving the problem as given in the Problem Statement in the quotes, what I was wanting was that what if instead of the constraint the question had placed the constraint had been what I had interpreted it initially which I have already written just below the quote, i.e. "the numbers can be repeated as many times as their magnitude"



So, lets state the problem that I am trying to solve if you wanna skip all the babble in the first part





Modified Problem Statement:-



Find the number of numbers of four digits that can be made from the digits $0,1,2,3,4,5$ if digits can be repeated as many times as their magnitudes. How many of these numbers have at least one digit repeated?


real analysis - How to find $lim_{hrightarrow 0}frac{sin(ha)}{h}$

How to find $\lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{\sin(ha)}{h}$ without lhopital rule? I know when I use lhopital I easy get $$ \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}...