Wednesday, 3 January 2018

Question regarding the Cauchy functional equation




Is it true that, if a real function $f$ satisfies $f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y)$ and vanishes at some $k \neq 0$, then $f(x) = 0$? Over the rationals(or, allowing certain conditions like continuity or monotonicity), this is clear since it is well known that the only solutions to this equation are functions of the form $f(x) = cx$. The reason I'm asking is to see whether or not there's "weird" solutions other than the trivial one.



Some observations are that $f(x) = f(x+k) = -f(k-x)$. $f$ is periodic with $k$.



It is easy to see that at $x=\frac{k}{2}$ the function also vanishes, and so, iterating this process, the function vanishes at and has a "period" of $\frac{k}{2^n}$ for all $n$. If the period can be made arbitrarily small, I want to say that implies the function is constant, but of course I don't know how to preclude pathological functions.


Answer



The values of $f$ can be assigned arbitrarily on the elements of a Hamel basis for the reals over the rationals, and then extended to all of $\mathbb{R}$ by $\mathbb{Q}$-linearity. So (assuming the Axiom of Choice) there are indeed weird solutions.


Tuesday, 2 January 2018

real analysis - Show that $ limlimits_{ntoinfty}frac{1}{n}sumlimits_{k=0}^{n-1}e^{ik^2}=0$




TL;DR : The question is how do I show that $\displaystyle \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}e^{ik^2}=0$ ?



More generaly the question would be : given an increasing sequence of integers $(u_k)$ and an irrational number $\alpha$, how do I tell if $\displaystyle \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}e^{2i\pi \alpha u_k}=0$ ? I'm not asking for a criterium for completely general sequences, an answer for sequences like $u_k=k^2$, $v_k=k!$ or $w_k=p(k)$ with $p\in \mathbf Z [X]$ would already be awesome.



A little explanation about this question :



In Real and Complex Analysis by Rudin there is the folowing exercise :



Let $f$ be a continuous, complex valued, $1$-periodic function and $\alpha$ an irrational number. Show that

$\displaystyle \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}f(\alpha k)=\int_0^1f(x)\mathrm d x$. (We say that $(\alpha k)_k$ is uniformly distributed in $\mathbf R / \mathbf Z$)



With the hint given by Rudin the proof is pretty straightforward : First one show that this is true for every $f_j=\exp(2i\pi j\cdot)$ with $j\in \mathbf{Z} $. Then using density of trigonometric polynomials in $(C^0_1(\mathbf{R}),\|\cdot\|_\infty)$ and the fact that the $0$-th Fourier coefficient of $f$ is it's integral over a period, one can conclude using a $3\varepsilon$ argument. This proof is possible because one can compute explicitly the sums $$\displaystyle \frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}e^{2i\pi j \alpha k}=\frac{1}{n}\cdot\frac{1-e^{2i\pi j\alpha n}}{1-e^{2i\pi j\alpha}}\longrightarrow 0 \text{ when }n\to\infty \text{ and }j\in \mathbf{Z}^*.$$



Now using a different approach (with dynamical systems and ergodic theorems) Tao show in his blog that $(\alpha k^2)_k $ is uniformly distributed in $\mathbf R / \mathbf Z$ (corollary 2 in this blog). I'd like to prove this result using the methods of the exercice of Rudin, but this reduce to show that $$\displaystyle \frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}e^{2i\pi j \alpha k^2}\longrightarrow 0 \text{ when }n\to\infty \text{ and }j\in \mathbf{Z}^*.$$ Hence my question.



P.S. When i ask wolfram alpha to compute $\sum_{k\geq0}e^{ik^2}$ it answer me with some particular value of the Jacobi-theta function. Of course the serie is not convergent but maybe it's some kind of resummation technique or analytic continuation. I'm not familiar with these things but it might be interesting to look in that direction.


Answer



Gauss sums




Your sum is strongly related to the Gauss sum. The usual trick is to compute the modulus. This works particularly smoothly over $\mathbf{Z}/p\mathbf{Z}$ as with usual Gauss sums, but essentially it works here too: If $S = \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} e^{ik^2},$ then
\begin{align}
|S|^2 &= \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \sum_{k'=0}^{n-1} e^{i(k'^2 - k^2)}\\
&= \sum_{h=-n+1}^{n-1} \sum_{\substack{0\leq k\end{align}
where we have written $h=k'-k$. Now the inner sum is a geometric series with at most $n$ terms and with common ratio $e^{i2h}$, so we have
\begin{equation}
\left|\sum_{\substack{0\leq k\end{equation}
Thus

\begin{equation}
|S|^2 \leq 2\sum_{h=0}^{n-1} \min\left(\frac2{|1-e^{i2h}|},n\right).
\end{equation}
Now fix $\epsilon>0$. Since $(h/\pi)_{h=1}^\infty$ is equidistributed mod $1$ the number of $h=0,\dots,n-1$ for which $|1-e^{i2h}| \leq \epsilon$ is $O(\epsilon n)$, so
\begin{equation}
|S|^2 \leq 2\sum_{\substack{0\leq h < n\\ |1-e^{i2h}| \leq \epsilon}}n + 2\sum_{\substack{0\leq h < n\\ |1-e^{i2h}| > \epsilon}} \frac2{|1-e^{i2h}|} \leq O(\epsilon n^2) + O(\epsilon^{-1} n).
\end{equation}
Since $\epsilon$ was arbitrary this implies $|S|^2=o(n^2)$, and hence $|S|=o(n)$.



The van der Corput trick




The only thing we really used about $k^2$ here is that for fixed $h$ we understand the behaviour of the sequence $(k+h)^2 - k^2$, and indeed if you repeat the above calculation but with a judicious application of the Cauchy--Schwarz inequality then you prove a general fact called van der Corput's difference theorem (aka Weyl's differencing trick): if $(u_k)$ is a sequence such that for each $h\geq 1$ the sequence $(u_{k+h}-u_k)$ is equidistributed modulo $1$, then $(u_k)$ is equidistributed modulo $1$. See for example Corollary 2 on Tao's blog here. This implies for example that $\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} e^{i2\pi p(k)} = o(n)$ for every nonconstant polynomial $p$ with irrational leading coefficient.



Other sequences



In general there is no hard and fast rule about $\lim \frac1n \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} e^{i2\pi \alpha u_k}$, i.e., about equidistribution of $(u_k)$, and in fact the other sequence you mention, $k!$, is indeed very different. To take a slightly simpler example which is qualitatively similar, consider $u_k = 2^k$. Let $f_n(\alpha)$ be the exponential sum $\frac1n \sum_{k=1}^n e^{i2\pi \alpha 2^k}$. Then it is a well known consequence of the ergodic theorem that $f_n(\alpha)$ converges to $0$ for almost every $\alpha$. On the other hand clearly $f_n(\alpha)\to 1$ for every dyadic rational $\alpha$, as $\alpha 2^k$ is eventually constantly $0$ mod $1$. But then by Baire category theorem we must have for a comeagre set of $\alpha$ that $f_n(\alpha)$ does not converge to $0$. Thus it's difficult to say anything too general about $f_n(\alpha)$, especially for particular $\alpha$. For instance, proving $\lim_{n\to\infty} f_n(\sqrt{2})=0$ is a famous open problem.



Test your understanding



Here are some related problems to think about, not all of which I know off-hand how to answer!





  1. Is $(\sqrt{n})$ equidistributed mod $1$?

  2. What about $(\log n)$?

  3. Show that there are some $\alpha$ for which $f_n(\alpha)$ does not converge.

  4. Determine $\{z: f_n(\alpha)\to z~\text{for some}~\alpha\}$.

  5. Let $g_n(\alpha) = \frac1n \sum_{k=1}^n e^{i2\pi \alpha k!}$. Prove statements for $g_n$ analogous to those we proved for $f_n$.

  6. Is there a power of $2$ with at least $7$ decimal digits equal to $7$?

  7. Think of other silly (but not open) problems like these ones.



calculus - Limit involving inverse tan function

I solved the following limit using L'Hospital's rule, but can't seem to solve it without using L'Hospital's.
$$\lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{e^{-1/x^2}-1}{2\arctan x-\pi}$$



I would like a hint as to how to get started.




I was also wondering how to approach inverse trigonometric functions in general when they appear in limits, since I didn't understand any solutions to this type of problem that I looked up.

summation - How to show $sum_{n=1}^{infty}frac{H_{n}}{n^{2}}=2zeta (3)$?




How to show this equation is true.



$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{H_{n}}{n^{2}}=2\zeta (3)$$




where $H_{n}=\frac{1}{1}+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\cdots+\frac{1}{n}$


Answer



It can be shown that
\begin{align}
H_{n} = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{1-t^{n}}{1-t} \ dt.
\end{align}
Using this integral form of the Harmonic numbers the series in question becomes
\begin{align}
S &= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^{2}} \cdot \int_{0}^{1} \frac{1-t^{n}}{1-t} \ dt \\

&= \int_{0}^{1} \left[ \zeta(2) - Li_{2}(t) \right] \frac{dt}{1-t},
\end{align}
where $Li_{2}(x)$ is the dilogarithm. Now using the integral
\begin{align}
\int \frac{Li_{2}(t)}{1-t} \ dt = 2 Li_{3}(1-t) - 2 Li_{2}(1-t) \ \ln(1-t) - Li_{2}(t) \ \ln(1-t) - \ln(t) \ \ln^{2}(1-t)
\end{align}
it is seen that, with the use of $Li_{m}(1) = \zeta(m)$, $Li_{m}(0) = 0$, $\ln(1) = 0$,
\begin{align}
S &= \zeta(2) [ - \ln(1-t)]_{0}^{1} + \zeta(2) \ln(0) + 2 Li_{3}(1) \\
&= - \zeta(2) \ln(o) + \zeta(2) \ln(0) + 2 Li_{3}(1) \\

&= 2 Li_{3}(1)
\end{align}
which yields
\begin{align}
\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{H_{n}}{n^{2}} = 2 \zeta(3).
\end{align}


linear algebra - Computing the bases of $mathbb Z _2 ^n$ over $mathbb Z_2$

I have to compute the number of bases of the vector space $\mathbb Z _2 ^n$
over $\mathbb Z_2$ and the vectors of each such basis.



For example for $n=2$, the number of bases is $6$ the vectors of each such basis are:

$((0,1),(1,0)) \ ;((0,1),(1,1));\ ((1,0),(0,1));\ ((1,0),(1,1));\ ((1,1),(0,1));\ ((1,1),(1,0))$
In my algorithm I managed to make a list that consists of all the vectors(I managed to compute the number of bases too). And to get the bases I was thinking to get all combinations of $p = dim \ V$ ($2$ for $n=2$,$3$ for $n=3$,...) and to check if they are linearly independent. And because the number of vector choosen is equal to the dimension, it will be a system of generators too, so a basis. But I don't know to make an algorithm if the vectors are linearly independent. Can somebody help me,please? (I am coding in Python)

Monday, 1 January 2018

polar coordinates - How to set the limits for Jacobian Integration




I've been interested in properly calculating a Jacobian Integral (that is, an integral in which a change of variables occurs). I'm sure that, by one's reading this, you've all probably already heard of how Jacobian Integration was used to calculate $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{-x^2}dx = \sqrt{\pi}$$. In that example, switching to polar coordinates yields the Jacobian Determinant $r$, such that the integrand can be changed to $re^{-r^2}$. And, to access all valid $\theta$ and $r$ as was done with $x$ and $y$ in the original double integral, the limits become $\theta\in[0,2\pi)$ and $r\in[0,\infty)$.



All of this makes sense to me. However, say I wanted to integrate similarly; more specifically, $$\int_{-1}^{1}e^{-x^2}dx$$ (I actually want to do this for a different function, but I figured I would keep it to this good example integral). Obviously, it is still clear to me how to change to polar coordinates, keeping the same Jacobian determinant, but how should I map the limits of integration to polar form?



Intuition tells me that I should utilize polar coordinates' definitions, $x=r\cos\theta$, $y=r\sin\theta$, and $r^2 = x^2+y^2$. This would imply that our limits should be over $r\in[0,1],\ \theta\in[-\frac\pi4,\frac\pi4]$. However, I'm uncertain and might be wrong. Am I headed in the right direction? What should I be doing? Are these limits possible to integrate analytically?



Thanks in advance!


Answer



It's not going to work. Your $r$ limits are way more complicated. You should get

$$8 \int_0^{\pi/4}\int_0^{\sec\theta} re^{-r^2}\,dr\,d\theta.$$
Good luck!!


integration - The partial expectation $mathbb{E}(X;_{X>K})$ for an alpha-stable distributed random variable

The partial expectation $\mathbb{E}(X;_{X>K})$ for an alpha-stable distributed random variable:




By playing with convolutions of Characteristic Functions of alpha-Stable distributions $S(\alpha, \beta, \mu, \sigma)$ and a payoff $K$, assuming $\mu=0$ and deriving under the integral sign, found the partial expectation $\mathbb{E}(X;_{X>K})$ , i.e., where F(x) is the distribution function of X, $\int_K^\infty x\, \mathrm{d}F(x)$ (which is not to be confused with the conditional expectation).



I am ending up with a difficult integral (easy to evaluate numerically but hard to get explicitly). With $1<\alpha\leq 2$:



$$\psi (\alpha, \beta, \sigma, K) = \frac{1}{2 \pi }\int_{-\infty }^{\infty } \alpha \sigma ^{\alpha } \left| u\right| ^{\alpha -2} \left(1+i \beta \tan \left(\frac{\pi \alpha }{2}\right) \text{sgn}(u)\right) \exp \left(\left| u \sigma \right| ^{\alpha } \left(-1-i \beta \tan \left(\frac{\pi \alpha }{2}\right) \text{sgn}(u)\right)+i K u\right) du$$



The solutions is easy for $K=0$, so
$$\psi(\alpha,\beta,\sigma,0)=-\sigma\frac{\Gamma \left(-\frac{1}{\alpha }\right) \left(\left(1+i \beta \tan \left(\frac{\pi \alpha }{2}\right)\right)^{1/\alpha }+\left(1-i \beta \tan \left(\frac{\pi \alpha }{2}\right)\right)^{1/\alpha }\right)}{\pi \alpha }
.$$
Also, there is a well known solution for symmetric cases in Zolotarev's book. But it is the $K \ne 0$ that is critical.

real analysis - How to find $lim_{hrightarrow 0}frac{sin(ha)}{h}$

How to find $\lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{\sin(ha)}{h}$ without lhopital rule? I know when I use lhopital I easy get $$ \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}...