I found a Note in my old Calc I script. Where it was stated that: for any set
M≠∅ and Nm={nϵN:n≤m,mϵN} ( N denoting the natural numbers).
Their either exists: a fixed m ϵ N and a bijective Map φ:Nm→M
or an injective Map φ:Nm→M
for all m ϵ N
I tired to proof this as refreshing exercise. It is fairly easy if you use counatbility arguments but i tried another way to proof it by induction where i got completley stuck. My quetions is now if it is even possible to proof it by induction and if yes how?
Answer
Well, clearly there if a∈M then f:{1}→M via f(1)=a is injective.
Suppose k. If there is a m≤k so that there is a bijection from Nm→M we are done and there is nothing left to prove.
Assume there is not but there is an injection φ:Nk→M. Since φ is not a bijection but is an injection, φ is not surjective. So there is an a∈M so that a≠φ(j) for any j∈Nk.
Let φ′:Nk+1→M via φ′(k+1)=a and for j≤k φ′(j)=φ(j). φ′ is clearly an injection[∗]. And it might be a bijection (in which case we won't need to do any further induction) but it is definitely an injection. (And if it isn't a bijection we can do another induction).
==== after edit ===
In a current edit there is a condition I have not addressed. That if there is a m so that there is a bijection φ:Nm→M that m is fixed, or in other words there is precisely one such m that will have bijections from Nm to M and no other natural number will.
Claim: If a bijection exists between Nm and M then no bijection exist between Nk and M for any other k.
Pf: Suppose k<n and bijections φn:Nn→M and φk:Nk→M exist.
Then f=φn∘φ−1k∘φn(i):Nn→M is a bijection as it is a composition of bijections.
But then for j>k we must have an f(i)=φn(j)or φn(φ−1k(varphin(i))=φn(j). But φn is a bijection, so φ−1k(φn(i))=j which would mean j∈Nk which is a contradiction.
......
[∗] If φ′(b)=φ′(c) either φ′(c)=a or φ′(c)≠a.
If φ′(c)=a then c≰k so c=b=k+1.
If φ′(c)≠a then c≠k+1 and b≠k+1 so φ′(c)=φ(c) and φ(b)=φ(b), and, as φ is an injection b=c.
Either way b=c and φ′ is an injection.
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