Let a,b∈Z∖{0} and d=gcd(a,b). Show that gcd(ad,bd)=1.
I tried proving this by contradiction and showing that otherwise d isn't the gcd of a and b, but it didn't work. Could someone please give me a hint on what the proof should look like?
Answer
If d′>1 divides both ad and bd then dd′>d divides a and b, contradicting the fact that d is the greatest common divisor of a and b.
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