I am trying to show that∫∞0cosπxe2π√x−1dx=2−√28
I have verified this numerically on Mathematica.
I have tried substituting u=2π√x then using the cosine Maclaurin series and then the ζ(s)Γ(s) integral formula but this doesn't work because interchanging the sum and the integral isn't valid, and results in a divergent series.
I am guessing it is easy with complex analysis, but I am looking for an elementary way if possible.
Answer
This integral is one of Ramanujan's in his Collected Papers where he also shows the connection with the sin case.
Define ∫∞0cos(aπxb)e2π√x−1dx
If a and b are both odd. In this case, they are both a=b=1.
Then, 14b∑k=1(b−2k)cos(k2πab)−b4a√b/aa∑k=1(a−2k)sin(π4+k2πba)
letting a=b=1 results in your posted solution.
No comments:
Post a Comment