I have that a set E is Lebesgue measurable if the outer measure:
μ∗(E)=inf
satisfy the three properties of measure.
Proving that f(x)=\frac{1}{x^2 \ln x} is Lebesgue measurable would suggest that I must prove that the set f((2,+\infty)) satisfies these properties. Is this correct, and how do I go about proving this? Maybe using the fact that the function is a continuous bijection and a map of an open set would also be open and this would be a subset of Borel- sigma algebra. Help ?
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