I have come across this question, which reminded me of Fermats little theorem, i dont know if the Fermats theorem is actually in use in the following mathematical statements
an integer a is a coprime with p and a coprime with q (p and q are different prime numbers )then prove that
a(p−1)(q−1)≡1(modpq)
pq−1+qp−1≡1(modpq)
any help would be appreciated, thanks in advance.
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