I have come across this question, which reminded me of Fermats little theorem, i dont know if the Fermats theorem is actually in use in the following mathematical statements
an integer a is a coprime with p and a coprime with q (p and q are different prime numbers )then prove that
$$a^{(p-1)(q-1)} \equiv 1(\operatorname{mod} pq) $$
$$p^{q-1}+q^{p-1} \equiv 1(\operatorname{mod} pq)$$
any help would be appreciated, thanks in advance.
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