I know how to prove this by induction but the text I'm following shows another way to prove it and I guess this way is used again in the future. I'm confused by it.
So the expression for first n numbers is:
n(n+1)2
And this second proof starts out like this. It says since:
(n+1)2−n2=2n+1
Absolutely no idea where this expression came from, doesn't explain where it came from either.
Then it proceeds to say:
22−12=2∗1+132−22=2∗2+1…n2−(n−1)2=2(n−1)+1(n+1)2−n2=2n+1
At this point I'm completely lost.
But it continues to say "adding and noting the cancellations on the left, we get"
(n+1)2−1=2(1+2+...+n)+nn2+n=2(1+2+...+n)(n(n+1))/2=1+2+...+n
Which proves it but I have no clue what has happened. I am entirely new to these math proofs. Im completely lost. I was great at high school math and calculus but now I haven't got the slightest clue of what's going on. Thanks
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