Monday, 30 April 2018

real analysis - Why can a closed, bounded interval be uncountable?



From what I have read, all finite sets are countable but not all countable sets are finite. As I understand it,




  • Countably Finite --- a one to one map onto N with a limited number of members

  • Countably Infinite --- a one to one map onto N with an unlimited number of members but that you can count in principle if given an infinite amount of time

  • Uncountably Infinite --- there is no one to one mapping onto N. Even if you count, you will miss some of the members. And it is infinite.




From this I gather that countable is not the same as finite. Countable is the one to one property with N. Finite just means a limited number of elements.



Now consider [0,1] which is closed and bounded.




  • Bounded --- k[0,1] we have k1. Similarly all k0.

  • Closed --- it contains the endpoints 0 and 1




Yet I read [0,1] is uncountably infinite. So clearly, neither closure nor boundedness implies finiteness or countability.



Question:



Why can a closed, bounded interval be uncountable?



It just seems like something that is bounded would be "more finite" than something that isn't.


Answer



I suspect you're conflating two meanings of "finite". Some sets are finite, meaning they have only finitely many elements. An interval like [0,1] is not such a set. On the other hand, [0,1] has finite length, which is a quite different matter. As the other answers have explained, finite length does not imply finiteness (or even countability) in terms of the number of elements.



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