Prove or disprove that for any a>1,
∫∞0√a2−y2+√(a2−y2)2+4y2(a2−y2)2+4y2dy=√2π .
I came across with this integral evaluating inverse Laplace transformation of 1√1+s2 without using any complex integral method. If possible I want to know if there's a way to show that
lim
without using the residue method.
Actually I met a problem here by the reason explained in this question. Any help appreciated.
Answer
How do you get that a real integral over a real interval will result in an imaginary value?
Use s=\sinh(t) to get
\int\frac1{\sqrt{1+s^2}}=\int \frac{\cosh(t)}{\sqrt{1+\sinh^2(t)}}dt=t+C
to evaluate this integral.
As to the changed boundaries, you still have to evaluate \operatorname{Arsinh}(a+iT)-\operatorname{Arsinh}(a-iT)=2i\,Im(\operatorname{Arsinh}(a+iT)).
Since
\sinh(x+iy)=\cos(y)\sinh(x)+i\sin(y)\cosh(x)
one has to solve \cos(y)\sinh(x)=a, \sin(y)\cosh(x)=T for y. Combined, the equation
T=\sin(y)\sqrt{1+\frac{a^2}{\cos^2(y)}}
has to be solved in such a way that the solution y(T) is continuous in T from 0 to \infty. Since \sin(y) is bounded, large values for T have to be reached by \cos(y)\approx 0, which means that y\in[0,\frac\pi2) and the limit for T\to\infty is reached by y\to\frac\pi2.
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