I'm attempting to prove the convergence (or divergence, though I strongly suspect it converges) of a sequence defined as an+1=√2−an with a1=√2.
I cannot use the monotonic sequence theorem as the sequence is not monotonically increasing. In fact, the first few values of the sequence are:
a1=√2≈1.4142
a2=√2−√2≈.7653
a3=√2−√2−√2≈1.1111
Thus, it seems that an→∞→1
It seems that the sequence is behaving similarly to sinxx, leading me to think that the squeeze theorem may be useful. Still, I cannot seem to make any progress besides numerical computation of successive terms.
Answer
Hint: write an=1+bn or an=1−bn, whichever makes bn positive. How does bn behave?
Elaboration: we have an=1+bn for odd n and an=1−bn for even n (why so?). So, for example, for even n we can write an+1=√2−an as 1+bn+1=√2−(1−bn)=√1+bn. Now you can compare bn+1 and bn. Proceed similarly for odd n.
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