Let p be an odd prime and k a positive integer. Show that the congruence x2 ≡1 modpk has exactly two incongruence solutions, namely, x≡±1modpk.
I'm not sure what to do after this:
x2 ≡1 modpk => pk | x2−1=(x-1)(x+2)
Answer
As you have already observed, pk∣(x−1)(x+1). In particular p∣(x−1)(x+1), so either p∣x−1 or p∣x+1. In any case, we cannot have both since p∤. This implies that p^k\mid x-1 or p^k \mid x+1. Why?
This works in general: x^2=n\mod p^k has at most two incongruent solutions.
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