Suppose f1,f2,... are entire functions, and there is an open subset U⊆C such that the series F(z)=∑∞n=1fn(z) converges normally on U. Also suppose that F can be analytically continued to an entire function.
I have a situation where all fn vanish at some point z0, but unfortunately z0∉U. Can we still say that F(z0)=0?
I would guess not, since it feels like bending the rules of analytic continuation in a way that shouldn't be allowed. But I didn't think of a counterexample.
Answer
The answer is NO.
Example. Let U be the unit disk, and
fn(z)=(1−z)zn.
Then F(z)=∑fn(z)=z, and while fn(1)=0, we have that F(1)=1.
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