Suppose f:A→B is a surjective map of infinite sets. Let C be a countable subset of B. Suppose that f−1(y) has two elements if y∈C, and one element if y∈B−C. Show that there is a one-to-one correspondence between A and B.
So I thought to define a function ϕ:B→A. It's given that for y∈B−C, f−1(y) is one-to-one so we know for those elements we are fine. The only thing to do is find a correspondence for the elements in C. But since we know that there are two elements in A corresponding to each of these elements in C. How can this possibly be one-to-one?
Thanks for any help offered!
Answer
The trick is to exploit the countability of C. So there is an element 1 of C, element 2 of C, etc. Rewrite f as follows: Leave f on B - C alone. For each pair of elements of A each mapped to the same element of C, arbitrarily designate one of them as 'odd' and the other as 'even'. Then remap them by parity - ie, change the mapping from the i'th pair in A to the i'th element of C to map the 'odd' element to the (2*i-1)'th element of C and the 'even' element to the (2*i)'th element of C.
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