I got this exercise which I quite frankly can't wrap my head around
lim
The result should be:\ -\frac{1}{2}
I tried by derivating the whole function and that led me nowhere. If I put in \ x = 0 , I get \ \frac{0}{0} which means I can apply L'Hôpital's rule but that led me to the wrong answer as well. Obviously I'm doing something wrong. I had a look at Wolfram Alphas step-by-step solution to this exercise but I didn't really understand it.
I'm appreciative with any possible help.
Thanks,
Michael.
Answer
The e^x part safely has limit 1, so we can forget about it and calculate
\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\ln(1-x)+\sin x}{x^2}.
Now L'Hospital's Rule works nicely, with smaller probability of error than if we keep the e^x part.
I prefer a somewhat more "hands on" approach that uses the first few terms of the power series expansions of \ln(1-x) and \sin x. Note that \ln(1-x)=-x-\dfrac{x^2}{2}+o(x^2) while \sin x=x+o(x^2). Add. We get -\dfrac{x^2}{2}+o(x^2). Divide by x^2. So our expression is -\dfrac{1}{2}+o(1), which is the desired result.
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