Let f:[0,1]→R is such that for every sequence xn∈[0,1], whenever both xn and f(xn) converges , we have limn→∞f(xn)=f(limn→∞xn),
well, I take xn and yn in [0,1] such that |(xn−yn)|→0, and the given condition holds,Now enough to show |f(xn)−f(yn)|→0
I construct a new sequence z1=x1
We see, that subsequence of f(zn) converges so it must be convergent to the same limit. Am I going in right path? please help.
Answer
I will prove a different claim because I have pointed out that what is mentioned here is wrong by a counter-example.
Let f:[0,1]→R is such that for every sequence xn∈[0,1] whenever (xn) converges , we have limn→∞f(xn)=f(limn→∞xn) then f is continous on [0,1].
I think the best way is to use proof by contradiction. Assume f is not continuous at c∈[0,1] then there exist ϵ0>0 such that for all n∈N there exist xn∈(c−1/n,c+1/n)∩[0,1] such that |f(xn)−f(c)|≥ϵ0>0
Obviously (xn) converges to c but (f(xn)) does not converge to f(c) ( Note that all the terms of (f(xn)) are a positive distance away from f(c) ) which is a contradiction with the given property of the function.
Since our choice of c was arbitrary, we have that f is continuous on [0,1]
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