I'm seeing this as part of a proof for the reduction formula and I see this:
So am I correct for saying that if you multiply the sinn−2x by (1−sin2x), you get sinn−2x−sinnx and so the (n−1)∫sinn−2x⋅cos2x becomes what is shown below? is that right? Generally, ∫a−b=∫a−∫b right? That integral rule is visually intuitive right?
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