Assume that f is C2 near 0. I would like to show the following Schwartz derivative
f″(0)2=limx→0f(x)−f(0)x−f′(0)x
I am able to do this by using the Taylor expansion and L'Hopital rule. I am wondering how one can prove it without using Taylor expansion or L'Hopital rule.
Answer
Suppose x>0. Note
f(x)−f(0)x−f′(0)x=f(x)−f(0)−xf′(0)x2=∫x0f′(t)dt−∫x0f′(0)dtx2=∫x0[f′(t)−f′(0)]dtx2=∫x0[∫t0f″(s)ds]dtx2=∫x0[∫xsf″(s)dt]dsx2=∫x0(x−s)f″(s)dsx2
and
∫x0(x−s)ds=12x2.
So
|f(x)−f(0)x−f′(0)x−12f″(0)|=|∫x0(x−s)[f″(s)−f″(0)]dsx2|≤|∫x0(x−s)|f″(s)−f″(0)|dsx2|
Since f∈C2, for ∀ε>0, ∃δ>0 such that
|f″(x)−f″(0)|<ε∀x∈(0,δ).
Thus for x∈(0,δ),
|f(x)−f(0)x−f′(0)x−12f″(0)|≤∫x0(x−s)|f″(s)−f″(0)|dsx2≤|∫x0(x−s)εdsx2|=12ε.
So
limx→0f(x)−f(0)x−f′(0)x=12f″(0).
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