I understand why f:R→R with f′(x)=f(x) and f(0)=1 must be f(x)=ex, but I don't really feel it is super intuitive. Intuitively, why would you expect such a function to satisfy f(a)f(b)=f(a+b) or have exponential growth?
To build intuition, I tried the discrete case first, i.e.,
f(x+h)−f(x)h=f(x)⟹f(x+h)=f(x)(h+1)
so
f(y)=f(0)(1+h)yh=f(0)cyh
where ch=(1+h)1h and saw what happens when h→0. However, I'm interested in a more intuitive explanation, if there's one. Bonus if it also explains y′=P′y⇒y=CeP in a nice intuitive way.
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