I know how to prove this identity algebraically, but that's the stupidly boring way of doing problems. I can't think of a combinatorial proof for this, as in using counting committees or something like that. It's hard to deal with the negative 2 ...
n∑k=0(nk)(−2)k=(−1)n
Any help is appreciated, thanks!
Answer
The most natural combinatorial proof starts by multiplying the desired identity by (−1)n to make it
n∑k=0(nk)2k(−1)n−k=1.
Of course this is immediate from the binomial theorem, but if you want something more explicitly combinatorial, you can then replace k by n−k to get
n∑k=0(nk)(−1)k2n−k=1.
Suppose that we want to count the subsets of [n]={1,…,n} that do not contain any element of [n]. Of course the only such subset is ∅, so the value should be 1. On the other hand, if for k∈[n] we let Ak be the family of subsets of [n] containing k, then for any non-empty F⊆[n] we have
|⋂k∈FAk|=2n−k,
and there are (nk) such F⊆[n], so the result follows from the inclusion-exclusion principle.
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