Friday, 22 December 2017

algebra precalculus - Why $sqrt{-1 times -1} neq sqrt{-1}^2$?




We know $$i^2=-1 $$then why does this happen?
$$
i^2 = \sqrt{-1}\times\sqrt{-1}
$$
$$
=\sqrt{-1\times-1}
$$

$$
=\sqrt{1}
$$
$$
= 1
$$



EDIT: I see this has been dealt with before but at least with this answer I'm not making the fundamental mistake of assuming an incorrect definition of $i^2$.


Answer



From $i^2=-1$ you cannot conclude that $i=\sqrt{-1}$, just like from $(-2)^2 = 4$ you cannot conclude that $-2=\sqrt 4$. The symbol $\sqrt a$ is by definition the positive square root of $a$ and is only defined for $a\ge0$.




It is said that even Euler got confused with $\sqrt{ab} = \sqrt{a}\,\sqrt{b}$. Or did he? See Euler's "mistake''? The radical product rule in historical perspective (Amer. Math. Monthly 114 (2007), no. 4, 273–285).


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