Let's define f as a continuous function with f:[0;2]→R and f(0)=f(2).
Now, I want to show that:
∃x0∈[0;1]:f(x0)=f(x0+1)
I tried to plot a few functions in order to construct a counterexample, but it seems that this statement really is true.
Unfortunately, I don't think I'm entirely sure why this works, yet. My current guess is that it has something to do with the Intermediate Value Theorem, as f is continuous. In other words: If our function value 'goes up', it'll have to 'come back down' eventually (and vice versa), since it still needs to fulfill f(0)=f(2).
Can someone help me prove this statement?
Answer
Consider the following function on [0,1],
g(x)=f(x+1)−f(x)
where we assume f(0)=f(2). We'd like to show there is some x0∈[0,1] such that g(x0)=0. So if we can show g(x)>0 on some interval and g(x)<0 somewhere as well, since g(x) is continuous it must pass 0. This is the context of the intermediate value theorem. So let's consider x=0 and 1, we see that
g(0)=f(1)−f(0)&g(1)=f(2)−f(1)=f(0)−f(1)=−g(0)
Thus we see that g(x) does indeed change sign. So by the intermediate value theorem we know that it must be zero somewhere.
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