Sunday, 10 December 2017

probability - an problem for the range of integration of cdf



Let X be a continuous, nonnegative random variable, and FX(x) is the cdf of X.



0P(X>x)dx=0xfx(y)dydx=0y0dxfx(y)dy



I don't know why the range is from 0 to y at the last term.

Thanks.


Answer



Draw the line y=x. In the middle integral, y went from y=x to , and then x went from x=0 to .



So the full double integration was done over the part K of the first quadrant that is above the line y=x. Concentrate on K, a roughly triangular region. Write K in that reg. on.



Now we change the order of integration. For any fixed y, we integrate first with respect to x. So x goes from x=0 to the diagonal line. We have to stop there in order not to leave K. Thus x goes from x=0 to x=y. Then y goes from 0 to .



Remark: The rest of the story is interesting. When we integrate with respect to x, where x goes from 0 to y, then fX(y) is being treated as a constant, and we get yfX(y). Now when we integrate with respect to y, we get E(X).


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