Tuesday, 16 January 2018

calculus - Proof using the mean value theorem



I need to prove (using the mean value theorem) that for all x(0,), the following inequality holds:



exp(x)1x






I don't know how the mean value theorem is applicable here, since we don't have a closed interval.




How do I prove the statement?


Answer



Hint: let f(t)=et, and (for a fixed x) try using the mean value theorem on the interval [0,x].


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