I’m stuck on the following number theory problem:
Let a and b be integers not divisible by the prime number p.
If a p ≡ b p (modp), prove that a p ≡ b p (modp2).
Not really sure how to attempt this. My first thought was to use FLT to simplify but that didn't work the way I wanted it to. Any suggestions or tips would be appreciated
Answer
At the heart this is really trivial, a consequence of f(x)=xp ⇒ f′(x) = pxp−1≡ 0 (mod p). First I give a simple proof, then I explain the viewpoint in terms of derivatives and multiple roots.
mod p: 0≡ap−bp≡a−b, so p∣a−b. So to show p2|ap−bp=(a−b)ap−bpa−b it suffices
to show that p|a−b ⇒ p |ap−bpa−b= ap−1+ap−2b+⋯+abp−2+bn−1
But mod p: a≡b ⇒ ap−bpa−b ≡ ap−1+⋯+ap−1≡pap−1≡0 QED
The prior line is the special case f=xp, x=b of this polynomial Taylor series approximant:
f(x)−f(a)x−a≡ f′(a) (mod x−a) for f(x)∈Z[x]
i.e. f(x) = f(a)+f′(a) (x−a)+(x−a)2g(x) for some g(x)∈Z[x]
Therefore this result about numbers is just a special case of the following well-known result about functions (here polynomials): a root x=a of f(x) has multiplicity >1 ⟺ f′(a)=0. In fact, like above, many results about numbers are actually specializations of results about functions. Moreover, because functions have richer structure than numbers - e.g. having derivatives available - we can exploit this structure in the function realm before specializing to numbers. A powerful example of this is Mason's ABC theorem - which has a trivial high-school level proof for polynomials, but is an unproven conjecture for numbers. It yields as a consequence a trivial proof of FLT for polynomials. The moral is: to prove a result about numbers, try to interpret it as special case of a result about functions.
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