Wednesday, 7 March 2018

proof verification - Globally invariant subalgebras of KotimesFK.




I'm working through the last exercise in Tignol's Galois' theory of algebraic equations, which is about an unusual proof of the Galois correspondence. The setup and the part of the question I'm struggling with are excerpted below.




Let K/F be a Galois extension of fields with Galois group G and let F(G,K) be the K-vector space of all maps from G to K.



(a) Show that there is a well-defined F-linear map
φ:KFKF(G,K)

such that φ(ab)(σ)=σ(a)b for a,bK.




As far as I can see, this is a consequence σG fixing F, so ψ(a,b,σ)=σ(a)b is F-bilinear, and of the universal property of the tensor product.




(b) Consider KFK as a vector space over K by (ab)k=abk. Show that φ is K-linear and bijective.




K-linear is easy enough, given this definition of the scalar multiplication. Bijective follows by results about the rank of the matrix of the map with respect to the bases (ej1)1jn and fk:σiδik, which are proved in the text and the previous question, but I don't think this part is relevant beyond the definitions.





(d) Let G act on KK by σ(ab)=aσ(b). [...]



(e) Show that a K-subalgebra of KK is globally invariant under the action of G defined in (d) if and only if it has the form LFK for some subfield L of K containing F.



[Hint: for any K-subalgebra A of KK, define L={xKx1A}. Show that every ri=1aibiA is in LK by induction on the number r of terms.]




This is the part I'm stuck on. I seem to be able to do this, but I don't seem to have used the global invariance under G, which is odd, so maybe I have misunderstood the question. Facts that I think I know:





  • We need to equip KK (presumably this is still KFK) with a bilinear product to turn it from a K-vector space into a K-algebra. The obvious way to do this is to set (ab)(cd)=(ac)(bd) and extend linearly. Since the book says nothing about this, presumably it's simple, and this seems the simplest way to me.


  • KK the K-algebra is composed of elements of the form
    ri=1aibi,r1,ai,biK.
    We have F-linearity in both arguments of ab and K-linearity in the second by the definition of KK as a K-vector space in (b), and the product mentioned in the previous point that turns KK into a K-algebra.


  • Now let A be a K-subalgebra of KK. This means that K-linear combinations of elements of A are in A, and the product of two elements of A is in A. If in addition A is globally invariant, G(A)A.


  • We want to show that (A is a K-subalgebra that is is globally invariant under the action of G) (A=LFK where L is a subfield of K and contains F)





So suppose first that we have LFK where L is a subfield of K and contains F. We want to show that this is a subalgebra of KK and that it is globally invariant under the action of G.



Check it's a subalgebra: the elements of LK are all of the form ri=1cibi with r1, ciL and biK. Obviously a K-linear combination of these is still in LK since it is of the same form. Equally, (cb)(cb)=(cc)(bb) is in LK, so bilinearity and induction give that LF is a K-subalgebra.



Check it's invariant under the action of G: for σG, the definition in (d) gives σ(ri=1cibi)=ri=1ciσ(bi) (assuming the action extends linearly to elements of higher rank—what else could it do?), and σ(bi)K, so we get . Fine.










Now the other direction. Suppose that A is a subalgebra. Define L as in the Hint.




  1. First we show that L is an F-vector space (and hence an abelian group). Suppose that x,yL. Then x1,y1A by definition. Then if a,bF, (ax+by)1=a(x1)+b(y1)A since elements of KK are F-linear in the first argument and A is an F-vector space. Hence ax+byL and so L is an F-vector space.


  2. Next we show L is closed under products. With x,y as before, (xy)1=(x1)(y1)A by the definition of the product and A's being a subalgebra, so L is indeed closed under products.


  3. Now we show FL. Let xL. Then xkL for k0, and the usual linear algebra implies that there is a monic irreducible polynomial p(X)=Xm+pm1Xm1++p0F[X] of degree m[K:F] so that p(x)=0. Since it is irreducible, p(0)=p00, and since p(x)0, p0=xmpm1xm1p1x. L is an F-vector space, and the right-hand side is an F-linear combination of elements of L, so p0FL. But for any qF, qp10F, so qp10p0=qL for any qF. Hence FL.


  4. Lastly we need to show x1L. Suppose again that xL with minimal polynomial p, then we have x1=p10(xm1+pm1xm2++p1)L by a similar argument to before.




Therefore L is a subfield of K that contains F.







We now need to show that A=LK. Proceed as the Hint suggests: let us start with elements of the form abA. Then A is a K-vector space, so A(ab)(b1)=a1, so aL and hence abLK.



Now suppose that every member of A of the form ri=1aibi is in LK, and consider r+1i=1aibi. But this is the sum of two terms: ri=1aibiLK by the induction hypothesis, and ar+1br+1A since it is the difference of two elements of A, which lies in LK by the basis case. Hence r+1i=1aibi is the sum of two elements of LK and so itself lies in LK.



Hence every element of A lies in LK, so ALK. Lastly, we want to show that LKA, which follows because every element of LK can be written as a K-linear combination of elements of the form a1LK.







So that would seem to be it. But I haven't used anything about G at all in the proof! So this seems to imply that all K-subalgebras of KFK are globally invariant under this G-action. But apparently this is not the case, given that the next part of the question involves showing that subalgebras of F(G,K) (which are presumably in bijection with those of KFK by (a) and (b)) are in bijection with partitions of G, and are globally G-invariant precisely when they correspond to a partition of G into cosets of a subgroup, and obviously not all partitions of G are such.



Can someone point out my error?


Answer



Your induction step does not work. By the induction hypothesis, you only know that every element of the form ri=1aibi which is in A is also in LK. In general, you can't conclude from r+1i=1aibiA that ri=1aibiA, so the induction hypothesis does not apply.



I think it's instructive to give a concrete example to show where it goes wrong:



Let F=Q and K=Q(i,2), then a K-basis of KFK (with respect to the action of K as in the OP) is given by (11,i1,21,i21).




Consider the element α=2ii22i2i2KFK A simple computation shows that α2=121+4α, so the K-subvector space spanned by 11 and α is closed under multiplication, thus it is a subalgebra, which I will call A. It's not difficult to compute that L=Q in this case. If we try to apply the induction step to α, we need to have that 2ii22A, but this element is not a linear combination of α and 11.


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