I understand that a≡b(modn) means when you divide each a and b by n you get the same remainder. But why do people say: "a divided by n gives you remainder b"?
They say that in the first 30 seconds of this video lecture http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QXIlkq06Ct0&feature=youtube_gdata_player
Example
12≡17(mod5)
12 divided 5 has remainder of 2
17 divided by 5 has remainder of 2
Neither has the latter relation, so why do people sometimes say this.
Answer
12 is the same as 2 mod and
17 is the same as 2 \bmod{5}
Lets say you have a\equiv b\bmod{n}. Then the numbers you are working with are basically from the set {0,1,2,3,...,n-1}, the number n=0 (mod n), n+1=1 (mod n), n+2=2 (mod n), ect.
If two numbers, a and b are related by a\equiv b\bmod{n}, then (a-b)=nc,for c\in \mathbb{N}, that is (a-b) is a multiple of n. So in your case above, 2\equiv2+5\equiv2+10\equiv2+15\equiv ect.\bmod{5}. So 2 is the same as 12 which is the same as 15 \bmod{5}
When you have a\equiv b \bmod{n}, with a>b and b\in\{0,1,\cdots ,n-1 \}, then in fact a divided by n is b, this is the case in the video. When this is not the case, it causes for confusion, as in your example. It would make sense to write 17\equiv 2 \bmod{5} however.
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