Physicists often assign a finite value to a divergent series ∑∞n=0an via the following regularization scheme: they find a sequence of analytic functions fn(z) such that fn(0)=an and g(z):=∑∞n=0fn(z) converges for z in some open set U (which does not contain 0, or else ∑∞n=0an would converge), then analytically continue g(z) to z=0 and assign ∑∞n=0an the value g(0). Does this prescription always yield a unique finite answer, or do there exist two different sets of regularization functions fn(z) and hn(z) that agree at z=0, such that applying the analytic continuation procedure above to fn(z) and to hn(z) yields two different, finite values?
Answer
The way you have the question written, the procedure can absolutely lead to different, finite, results depending on one's choice of the fn(z). Take the simple example of 1−1+1−1+…. The most obvious possibility is to take fn(z)=(−1)n(z+1)n (i.e., a geometric series), in which case
g(z)=∞∑n=0fn(z)=∞∑n=0(−1)n(z+1)n=11+1z+1=z+1z+2,
where the sum converges for |z+1|>1, and g(0)=1/2. But if you don't insist on the terms forming a power series, then there are other possibilities. For instance, let f2m(z)=(m+1)z and f2m+1(z)=−(m+1)z (i.e., zeta-regularize the positive and negative terms separately); then g(z)=0 everywhere, where the sum converges for ℜ(z)<−1 and is analytically continued to z=0.
By taking an appropriate linear combination of the first and second possibilities, you can get 1−1+1−1+… to equal any value at all. Specifically, taking
fn(z)=(−1)n(2β(z+1)n+(1−2β)⌈n+12⌉z),
you find g(z)=2β(z+1)/(z+2), convergent in an open region of the left half-plane, and g(0)=β.
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