Monday 27 May 2013

limits - Show that $lim_{xto frac{pi}{2}} frac{1}{big(x-frac{pi}{2}big)}+{tan(x)}=0$.


Prove that
$$\lim_{x\to \frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1}{\big(x-\frac{\pi}{2}\big)}+{\tan(x)}=0.$$





I'm not really sure how to proceed. I know that I should not try L'Hôpital's rule (tried that) but not sure how I would incorporate into the Squeeze Theorem or how I would use continuity.



Thanks!



Edit: Turns out I was really dumb and you do use L'Hôpital's rule twice. I made the mistake of differentiating the whole quotient rather than the function on top and the bottom of the vinculum separately.

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