Prove that
$$\lim_{x\to \frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1}{\big(x-\frac{\pi}{2}\big)}+{\tan(x)}=0.$$
I'm not really sure how to proceed. I know that I should not try L'Hôpital's rule (tried that) but not sure how I would incorporate into the Squeeze Theorem or how I would use continuity.
Thanks!
Edit: Turns out I was really dumb and you do use L'Hôpital's rule twice. I made the mistake of differentiating the whole quotient rather than the function on top and the bottom of the vinculum separately.
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