This problem is actually the Exercise 8 in Chapter 3 of Rudin's Real and Complex analysis book. The problem is as follows:
If g is a positive function on (0,1) such that g(x)→∞ as x→0. Does there exist a convex function h on ((0,1) such that h(x)≤g(x) for all x∈(0,1) and h(x)→∞ as x→0?
My guess is 'Yes', there does exist such a function but can not prove it. Any help will be appreciated. Thanks in advance!
Answer
The supremum of a family of convex functions is again convex. So let
h(x)=sup{φ(x):φ is convex and φ(t)⩽g(t) for all t∈(0,1)}.
Then h is a convex function, and h(x)⩽g(x) for all x∈(0,1). Now it remains to see that limx→0h(x)=+∞.
Let M>0. Since limx→0g(x)=+∞, there is an ε>0 such that x⩽ε⟹g(x)>2M. Then
ψ(x)={2M(1−xε),0<x<ε0,ε⩽x<1
is a convex function on (0,1) with ψ(x)<g(x) for all x∈(0,1) and ψ(x)>M for x<ε2, hence we have h(x)>M for x<ε2. Since M was arbitrary, this shows limx→0h(x)=+∞.
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