I've been trying to prove that b−a1+b<ln(1+b1+a)<b−a1+a using the Mean value theorem. What I've tried is setting f(x)=lnx and using the Mean value theorem on the interval [1,1+b1+a]. I managed to prove that ln(1+b1+a)<b−a1+a but not the other part, only that 1+a1+b<ln(1+b1+a). any help?
p.s: sorry if I have some mistakes in my terminology or so on, I'm not totally fluent in english.
Answer
You apply the mean value theorem to the function f:x↦ln(1+x) on the interval [a,b]. Note that f fulfills the hypothesis of the theorem : being continuous on [a,b] and differentiable on ]a,b[.
On this interval the function f′ is bounded below by 11+b and above by 11+a, so that 11+b≤f(b)−f(a)b−a≤11+a. Replacing f with its explicit definition and f′ by what I let you calculate, and "multiplying the inequalities" by b−a gives you the wanted result.
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