Sunday, 30 November 2014

real analysis - Bijection from mathbbN to mathbbN such that f(n)geqntextforlargen or f(n)leqntextforlargen holds.



Let us consider an arbitrary bijective map f:NN. Then which one of the following is correct? f(n)n for large nf(n)n for large n

I know that f(n)=n is a bijection. But if f is any other bijection other than identity, which of the above must hold? It may be happen that both can hold for different f. Please give me some example or if any proof, of the above.


Answer



None! We can define f in a way that it "swaps" every pair of numbers: f(1)=2, f(2)=1, f(4)=3, f(3)=4... This is a bijection, but you have f(n)=n+1>n for n odd whereas $f(n)=n-1 for n even.



Hope this helps!


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