Tuesday, 9 February 2016

real analysis - Prove that limntoinftyfracn(n!)frac1n=e




I have solved the problem in just 2 lines using a theorem which asserts that




"Let un be a real sequence such that un>0nN and limnun+1un= (finite of infinite). Then limn(un)1n= "



To prove the aforesaid limit, I fix un=nnn!. Then un>0nN and limnun+1un=limn(1+1n)n=e.



Then it follows from the above theorem that limn(un)1n=e i.e. limnn(n!)1n=e. (Proved)



But I am trying to prove it without using the theorem. I am trying to get a generic proof.



Can anyone provide a proper wayout for this?




Thanks for your help in advance.


Answer



EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, even though the final inequality is correct, it is insufficient since (n+1)1/n1 as n. The lower bound can be obtained as shown in @adfriedman's answer.



Here's my take on it:
Whenever n3, we have
nn(n+1)!,
and thus
nn(n+1)n!nn!1n(n+1)1n.

On the other hand, the Taylor expansion of en gives
nnn!k=0nkk!=ennn!1ne.
So,
(n+1)1nnn!1ne.
Apply the Squeeze Theorem.


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