In Stephen Abbott's Understanding Analysis, when proving that the set of rational numbers is dense in the set of real numbers, Abbott picks an integer m such that m−1⩽ where n and a are a natural number and a real number respectively.
Intuitively it makes sense that such an m exists, but it seems to me that Abbott is taking liberties here. How do I know from the fact that the set of reals is a complete ordered field that such an m exists? (Abbott doesn't discuss the real number axioms but I know them from elsewhere.)
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