Let $(X, \cal M, \mu)$ be a measure space with $\mu(X)<\infty$. Why
\begin{align}
\lim_{p\to\infty}\|f\|_p=\|f\|_\infty
\end{align}
for all $f\in L_\infty$?
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
real analysis - How to find $lim_{hrightarrow 0}frac{sin(ha)}{h}$
How to find $\lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{\sin(ha)}{h}$ without lhopital rule? I know when I use lhopital I easy get $$ \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}...
-
$$ 3x+6y+5z=7 $$ The general solution to this linear Diophantine equation is as described here (Page 7-8) is: $$ x = 5k+2l+14 $$ $$ y = -l $...
-
I need help to compute the following integral: $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{z^4}{1+z^8}dz$$ I need to use Cauchy's residue theorem. I ...
-
How to show the following inequality in Measure Theory: If $f$ is a non-negative measurable function defined on a measurable set $E$ then ...
No comments:
Post a Comment