We have n distinct prime numbers p1,⋯,pn and I am asked to show that [Q(r√p1,⋯,r√pn):Q]=rn where r∈N.
I tried to solve it by induction. The case n=1 is trivial. If we let
F=Q(r√p1,⋯,r√pn)
E=Q(r√p1,⋯,r√pn,r√pn+1)
L=Q(r√p2,⋯,r√pn)
then by the inductive hypothesis [F:Q]=rn, [L:Q]=rn−1, [F:L]=r. We want to show that [E:F]=r. We know that [E:F]≤r. If $[E:F]
∏i∈I⊂{0,⋯,r−1}X−r√pn+1ζir where $\left |I\right |=m
Therefore r√pmn+1=∑r−1i=0ai(r√p1)i where ai∈L.
I don't know how to continue, I don't even know if I am doing the right thing.
Is it true that the trace over F/L of r√pi1 equals 0 for every i≠0? Because in that case taking trace over F/L we would obtain 0=ra0, thereby a0=0 and I think that could be helpful.
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