Let f:Rn→Rm be any function. Will the graph of f always have Lebesgue measure zero?
(1) I could prove that this is true if f is continuous.
(2) I suspect it is true if f is measurable, but I'm not sure. (My idea was to use Fubini's Theorem to integrate the indicator function of the graph, but I don't know if I'm using the Theorem properly).
If (2) is incorrect, what would be a counterexample where the graph of f has positive measure?
If (2) is correct, can we prove the existence of a non-measurable function whose graph has positive outer measure?
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