I seek an elementary set theory proof. (All new to me.)
Let $ f: X \rightarrow Y $ be a function. $A_i$ are subsets of $X$, $B_i$ are subsets of $Y$.
Prove that $f\left(\bigcup_iA_i\right) = \bigcup_if(A_i)$
I sense that the approach is to show they're subsets of each other, but I can't out how to formulate this.
(Whilst we're at it, is the same true with the intersection?)
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