Other than the general inductive method,how could we show that n∑r=0(−1)rr+1(nr)=1n+1
Apart from induction, I tried with Wolfram Alpha to check the validity, but I can't think of an easy (manual) alternative.
Please suggest an intuitive/easy method.
Answer
Look at
∫10(1−x)ndx
This is easy to compute by substitution.
Now compute it the hard way, by expanding using the Binomial Theorem, and integrating term by term.
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