I tried this exercise all the past week, but a I can´t do it.
We know that if {fn} is Cauchy in measure, then, there is a measurable function h such that {fn} converges in measure to h. Moreover, there is a subsequence that converges to h almost uniformly and almost everywhere to h, but...
If {fn} is Cauchy in measure and there are subsequences {fnk} and {fmk} and measurable functions f,g such that {fnk} and {fmk} converge to f and g almost everywhere, respectively, then f=g almost everywhere.
I tried to show that f=h=g a.e., but I can't solve it. Any help (or hint) is welcome.
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