Saturday, 23 January 2016

real analysis - bn bounded, suman converges absolutely, then sumanbn also



a) Prove that if an converges absolutely and bn is a bounded sequence, then also anbn converges absolutely.



I wanted to use the comparison test to show it's true, but I think I got something mixed up. Here's what I have so far.



bn is bounded c>0:|bk|<c,kN




anbn<anc<can. I'm very tempted to use the comparison test here and say, as an converges absolutetly, then so does can, but for that I needed the inverted relation, right? I would need an>can, which is not true. However isn't it obvious that something absolutely convergent multiplied by a constant is also absolutetly convergent? Is there a mathematical way to write this? Thanks a lot in advance.



b) Refute with a counter example: if an converges and bn is a bounded sequence, then also anbn converges.



Is this even possible? I mean, it has to be, but it doesn't make sense to me. If something converges, it means it's bounded, right? And I thought, well, since bounded + bounded = bounded, then bounded*bounded would also get me something bounded again.



Anyway, my idea would be to use for an an alternating series that ist only convergent, for example (1)n1n2. But something tells me I'm trying to prove anbn is not absolutely convergent.



Thanks a lot in advance guys!



Answer



Recall that if an is finite then can=can. This is true even if the series is not absolutely convergent.



The reason is simple, $\displaystyle\sum a_n = \lim_{k\to\infty}\sum_{n

Now your reasoning is true. If bnc then anbncancan, and the latter converges.



For the second question, in the first one the assumption was the series is absolutely convergent. Take a sequence which is not of this form.



For example an=(1)nn, and bn=(1)n. Now what is anbn?



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