I am trying to prove that the improper integral
I=∫∞0sinxsin(x2)dx
converges.
Here's my work:
It suffices to show that
∫∞π2sin(x)sin(x2)dx
converges. Using integration by parts,
∫∞π2sin(t)sin(t2)dt=∫∞π2sin(t)2t⋅2tsin(t2)dt=[−sin(t)2tcos(t2)]∞π2_+∫∞π2(sin(t)2t)′cos(t2)dt
The underlined part is a constant...
Then I got stuck. I'd like to use "sandwich rule" using the fact that −1≤cos(t2)≤1, but I can't find a way to apply it properly.
How can I proceed from here? Any correction and/or help would be appreciated. :)
Answer
We shall use only substitution and integration by parts to show that the integral of interest, ∫L1sin(x)sin(x2)dx, is convergent.
First, enforcing the substitution x→√x reveals
∫L1sin(x)sin(x2)dx=12∫L1sin(√x)sin(x)√xdx
Second, integrating by parts the integral on the right-hand side of (1) with u=sin(√x)√x and v=−cos(x) yields
∫L1sin(x)sin(x2)dx=12(−sin(√x)cos(x)√x)|x=Lx=1+14∫L1(cos(√x)cos(x)x−sin(√x)cos(x)x3/2)dx
Third, integrating by parts the first term in the integral on the right-hand side of (2) with u=cos(√x)x and v=sin(x), we obtain
∫L1cos(√x)cos(x)x=(cos(√x)sin(x)x)|x=Lx=1−∫L1(sin(√x)sin(x)2x3/2+cos(√x)sin(x)x2)dx
Substituting (3) into (2) shows that all integrals involved are of the forms
I1=∫L1sin(√x)cos(x)x3/2dx
and
I2=∫L1cos(√x)sin(x)x2dx
Both I1 and I2 are absolutely convergent as L→∞ since ∫∞11x3/2dx<∞ and ∫L11x2dx<∞.
Therefore, the integral of interest converges as was to be shown!.
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