Saturday, 16 January 2016

calculus - Convergence of I=inti0nftysinxsin(x2)mathrmdx



I am trying to prove that the improper integral

I=0sinxsin(x2)dx
converges.



Here's my work:



It suffices to show that
π2sin(x)sin(x2)dx
converges. Using integration by parts,



π2sin(t)sin(t2)dt=π2sin(t)2t2tsin(t2)dt=[sin(t)2tcos(t2)]π2_+π2(sin(t)2t)cos(t2)dt
The underlined part is a constant...



Then I got stuck. I'd like to use "sandwich rule" using the fact that 1cos(t2)1, but I can't find a way to apply it properly.



How can I proceed from here? Any correction and/or help would be appreciated. :)


Answer



We shall use only substitution and integration by parts to show that the integral of interest, L1sin(x)sin(x2)dx, is convergent.




First, enforcing the substitution xx reveals



L1sin(x)sin(x2)dx=12L1sin(x)sin(x)xdx






Second, integrating by parts the integral on the right-hand side of (1) with u=sin(x)x and v=cos(x) yields



L1sin(x)sin(x2)dx=12(sin(x)cos(x)x)|x=Lx=1+14L1(cos(x)cos(x)xsin(x)cos(x)x3/2)dx






Third, integrating by parts the first term in the integral on the right-hand side of (2) with u=cos(x)x and v=sin(x), we obtain



L1cos(x)cos(x)x=(cos(x)sin(x)x)|x=Lx=1L1(sin(x)sin(x)2x3/2+cos(x)sin(x)x2)dx






Substituting (3) into (2) shows that all integrals involved are of the forms



I1=L1sin(x)cos(x)x3/2dx



and




I2=L1cos(x)sin(x)x2dx



Both I1 and I2 are absolutely convergent as L since 11x3/2dx< and L11x2dx<.



Therefore, the integral of interest converges as was to be shown!.


No comments:

Post a Comment

real analysis - How to find limhrightarrow0fracsin(ha)h

How to find lim without lhopital rule? I know when I use lhopital I easy get $$ \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}...