I came across this statement, but can't see why it holds: $\left(1-\frac{1}{k}\right)^t < e^{-t/k}$
I'm sure it's something simple, but I don't have a great deal of mathematical experience. I have tried using $e^k = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{\lambda^n}{n!}$, but without success.
Help would be appreciated. Thanks!
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