If f(x) is continuous, it is known that f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y) implies that f(x) is linear, and non-continuous solutions are discussed in these links. (1,
2,3, 4)
However, what is wrong with this proof that all solutions to the Cauchy Functional Equation are of the form f(x)=cx?
If x is rational, it is known that f(x)=cx for some fixed constant c, as seen here.
If x is irrational let us assume that x=n+α, where 0≤α<1.
f(x)=f(n+α)=f(n)+f(α).
Because of the upper result, f(n)=cn.
Let the decimal expansion of α be ∑∞i=1ai10i
Note that ai10i is rational.
Then, f(α)=f(∞∑i=1ai10i)=∞∑i=1f(ai10i)=c∞∑i=1ai10i=cα
Therefore f(x)=cn+cα=cx. What did I do wrong?
Answer
The answer is in the comments:
How do you prove that f(∑∞i=1ai10i) equals ∑∞i=1f(ai10i) without assuming f continuous?
Exactly. Let bn=∑nj=1aj10−j. Then f(∑∞j=1aj10−j)=∑∞j=1f(aj10−j) is equivalent to f(lim. This assumes f is continuous at \alpha.
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