Wednesday, 19 October 2016

Summation operation for precalculus



Studying Spivak's Calculus I came across a relation I find hard to grasp. In particular, I want to understand it without using proofs by induction. So please prove or explain the following relationship by not using induction.



$$ \sum_{j=0}^{n}\binom{n}{j}a^{n-j}b^{j+1}=\sum_{j=1}^{n+1}\binom{n}{j-1}a^{n+1-j}b^{j} $$



Thanks in advance.



Answer



The identity you've given appears to be an index shift. Instead of beginning to sum at $i=0$, we wish to begin at $1$. In order to advance the summation index ahead by $1$, we have to take away $1$ from every instance of the index variable inside the summand.



$$\sum_{i=0}^{n}\binom{n}{i}a^{n-i}b^{i+1}$$



The index shift becomes clear if you let $j = i + 1$ and substitute.



$$= \sum_{j=0+1}^{n+1}\binom{n}{j-1}a^{n-(j-1)}b^{(j-1)+1}$$
$$= \sum_{j=1}^{n+1}\binom{n}{j-1}a^{n-j+1}b^{j}$$


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