I want to prove that n divides \binom{n}{k} and so I expanded the term to
\frac{n(n-1)..(n-k+1)}{k!}. Clearly n divides the numerator and also n is relatively prime to all of the terms in the denominator and so n is not divisible by k!. I'm struggling with how to approach that \frac{(n-1)..(n-k+1)}{k!} is integer.
This problem comes as an example in the book I'm reading and supposedly it's obvious but I don't see it.
Edit: Sorry adding that we must have 1 \leq k \leq n-1.
No comments:
Post a Comment