In some book about elementary number theory I found a theorem that when two integers a and b are both divisible by the same common factor f, then their sum a+b is also divisible by the same factor. In short:
f|a∧f|b⟹f|(a+b)
There's a corollary annexed to the above theorem which says that when some factor f divides a whole (the sum) and one of its parts (a, for example), then it also divides the other part (b, correspondingly).
My question is: Is it enough information to draw that inverse conclusion?
The book says so, and I know it is true, because I tested it for different cases and I have proven it geometrically (one cannot split a rectangle into two smaller rectangles without them having a common edge=factor). But I'm a bit suspicious about the validity of this corollary being there in the book without any further proof to show that the converse is also true, because I know that implications cannot be simply reversed. Are my suspicions right?
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