I was having trouble with the following integral:
∫∞0sin(x)xdx. My question is, how does one go about evaluating this, since its existence seems fairly intuitive, while its solution, at least to me, does not seem particularly obvious.
Answer
Let I(s) be given by
I(s)=∫∞0e−sxsin(x)xdx
for s≥0. Note that lim and that I(0)=\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin(x)}{x}\,dx is the integral of interest.
Differentiating I(s) as given by (1) (this is justified by uniform convergence of the "differentiated" integral for s\ge \delta>0) reveals
\begin{align} I'(s)&=-\int_0^\infty e^{-sx}\sin(x)\,dx\\\\ &=-\frac{1}{1+s^2} \tag 2 \end{align}
Integrating (2), we find that I(s)=\pi/2-\arctan(s) whence setting s=0 yields the coveted result
\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin(x)}{x}\,dx=\frac\pi2
No comments:
Post a Comment