Sunday, 24 November 2013

Prove the following logarithm inequality.





If x,y(0,1) and x+y=1, prove that xlog(x)+ylog(y)log(x)+log(y)2.




I transformed the LHS to log(xxyy) and the RHS to log(xy), from where we get that xxyyxy beacuse the logarithm is a monotonically increasing function. From there we can transfrom the inequality into xxyyyx1. So here I am stuck.



I could have started from some known inequalities too, like the inequalities between means.


Answer



Since xy and logxlogy have the same sign, we have
(xy)(logxlogy)0 or equivalently
xlogx+ylogyylogx+xlogy. Hence it holds that
2xlogx+2ylogy(x+y)logx+(x+y)logy=logx+logy. This proves
ylogy+xlogxlogx+logy2.




Note: As @Martin R pointed out, the result can be generalized to x+y=1xf(x)+yf(y)f(x)+f(y)2 for any increasing function f:(0,1)R.


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