If x,y∈(0,1) and x+y=1, prove that xlog(x)+ylog(y)≥log(x)+log(y)2.
I transformed the LHS to log(xxyy) and the RHS to log(√xy), from where we get that xxyy≥√xy beacuse the logarithm is a monotonically increasing function. From there we can transfrom the inequality into xx−yyy−x≥1. So here I am stuck.
I could have started from some known inequalities too, like the inequalities between means.
Answer
Since x−y and logx−logy have the same sign, we have
(x−y)(logx−logy)≥0 or equivalently
xlogx+ylogy≥ylogx+xlogy. Hence it holds that
2xlogx+2ylogy≥(x+y)logx+(x+y)logy=logx+logy. This proves
ylogy+xlogx≥logx+logy2.
Note: As @Martin R pointed out, the result can be generalized to x+y=1⟹xf(x)+yf(y)≥f(x)+f(y)2 for any increasing function f:(0,1)→R.
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